UPSC Prelims Solution – 2018

                                                                           

Solution – 2018: UPSC Prelims 
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 1. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

a. Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

b. It tends to reduce the widely biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

c. Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

d. None of the above.

Correct Answer- B (We think, Fourth option should be all of the above instead of none of the above)

Explanation

Prosopis juliflora is an evergreen tree with a large crown and an open canopy, growing to a height of 5-10m. It is small, and has green-yellowish spikes without any particular fragrance or attractiveness. It can grow on a variety of soils including rocky hills, saline flats. Its pods are used in preparing bread, sweets, syrup and coffee. It is also used as a barbecue fuel in U.S.A. It is planted for land reclamation because it is an aggressive colonizer, and replaces many native species of plants (reducing the wide biodiversity in the area in which it grows).

Prosopis juliflora leaf extract has been found effective against fungi Pyricularia grisea which causes rice blast disease. Also, its foliar application can control late leaf spot and rust diseases in groundnut and its methanol extracts were as effective against tomato bacterial leaf spot disease. Prosopis (Prosopis juliflora) is used a source of food, feed, fuel, medicines and cosmetics.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.

2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.

3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- D (1, 2 & 3)

Explanation

Though coral reefs also exist as deep cold water corals, but they are most commonly found at shallow depths in tropical waters. Coral animals that build tropical reefs require sunlight and warm waters, which are mainly available in tropical regions. Therefore coral reefs are mostly found in tropical waters. So, the first statement is correct. Second statement is also correct. More than half of the earth's coral reefs are distributed over only five countries: Indonesia, Australia, the Philippines, France (including its overseas territories) and Papua New Guinea.

Third statement is also correct. Coral reefs have higher phylum diversity compared to forests.

3. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

a. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

b. The UNEP Secretariat

c. The UNFCCC Secretariat

d. The World Meteorological Organization

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

The United Nations Climate Change secretariat has launched a new initiative called “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now”. It aims to recognize leadership in tackling climate change by non-Party stakeholders including individuals, companies and governments. According to the UNFCCC secretariat, it is a three step process, which requires individuals, companies and governments to:

• Measure their climate footprint;

• Reduce their emissions as much as possible;

• Offset what they cannot reduce with UN certified emission reductions.

4. With the reference to educational institutions during British rule in India, consider the following pairs:

Institution Founder

1. Sanskrit College - William Jones at Banaras

2. Calcutta Madras - Warren Hastings

3. Fort William College- Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer- Only 2

Explanation

First pair is incorrect. Sanskrit College was established in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan. He started the Sanskrit College at Benares for the study of Hindu law and Philosophy. Later, in 1958, the Sanskrit College became a university and in 1974 the name was changed to Sampurnanand Sanskrit University. Second pair is correct. Second pair is correct. In 1781, Warren Hastings founded the Madarasa Aliya or Calcutta Madarasa. Third pair is incorrect. Lord Richard Wellesley, Governor-General (1798-1805) of British India established Fort William College in 1800.

5. Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes seen in news - Countries to which they are associated

1. Catalonia - Spain

2. Crimea - Hungary

3. Mindanao - Philippines

4. Oromia - Nigeria

Which of the pairs given below above are correctly matched?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

First pair is correct. Catalonia is one of the Spain's richest and most highly industrialised regions. It was recently in news due to Catalan nationalist movement. Second pair is incorrect. The Republic of Crimea is a federal subject of Russia that is located on the Crimean Peninsula. It was annexed by Russia from Ukraine. Third pair is correct. Mindanao Island is located in Philippines. Fourth pair is incorrect. Oromia is a region of Ethiopia and not Nigeria.

6. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.

2. India’s then largest bank, “Imperial Bank of India” was renamed “State Bank of India”

3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.

4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

a. 4-1-2-3

b. 3-2-1-4

c. 4-2-1-3

d. 3-1-2-4

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 led to the formation of first democratically elected communist government in India. The Imperial Bank of India was renamed as the State Bank of India in 1955. Air India was nationalised in 1953, when the Government of India passed the Air Corporations Act and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons though its founder J. R. D. Tata. Goa officially became a part of India in 1961.

7. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statements?

a. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendments to the Constitution. b. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State policy in Part IV.

c. Article 21 and the freedom guaranteed in Part III.

d. Article 24 and the provision under the 44th Amendments to the Constitution.

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Recently, Supreme Court upheld that Right to Privacy is a fundamental right in India. Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.

8. Consider the following:

1. Area nut

2. Barley

3. Coffee

4. Finger millet

5. Groundnut

6. Sesamum

7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

a. 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

b. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

c. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price in 2018 for the following list of Items: Source

This list does not include turmeric, coffee and area nut.

9. In which of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

a. Arunachal Pradesh

b. Manipur

c. Meghalaya

d. Nagaland

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It was declared a sanctuary in 1977.

10. With the reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.

2. Satellites launched by PSLVs appear to remain permanently fixed in the first same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 1 and 2 Only

d. 3 only

Correct Answer- Only 1

Explanation

First statement is correct. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication

satellites. Second statement is incorrect because these are geostationary satellites launched by GSLVs that appear to remain permanently fixed in the first same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth (not by PSLVs). Third statement is incorrect because GSLV Mk III is a three-staged launch vehicle and not four-staged.

11. With the references to the governance of the public sector banking in India, considering the following statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate Banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer- Both 1 & 2

Explanation

Both are correct statements

Statement 1

Source

Statement 2

Source

12. Consider the following items:

1. Cereal grains hulled

2. Chicken eggs cooked

3. Fish processed and canned

4. Newspaper containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 2 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

As per GST Law, there is no GST payable on Cereal grains hulled, preserved or cooked eggs, and on newspapers, journals and periodicals, whether or not illustrated or containing advertising material. However, 5% GST has been imposed on processed and canned fish. Therefore, option three is the correct answer.

13. Consider of the following statements:

1. The Definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights, 2006.

2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been Habitat Rights.

3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitives and Vulnerable Tribal Groups is any part of India.

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct. The phrase “critical wildlife habitat” is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. Second statement is correct. Baiga is a tribe predominantly found in central India. It became the first tribe to get habitat rights. Third statement is incorrect because the Ministry of Tribal Affairs decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitives and Vulnerable Tribal Groups is any part of India.

14. Consider the following:

1. Birds

2. Dust blowing

3. Rain

4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 2 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

Birds can be responsible for spreading a range of diseases as they visit plants and then bird feeders frequently. Similarly, Dust blowing or Dust storms and wind blowing are capable of carrying away bacteria or virus to all corners of the globe and therefore can easily spread plant diseases. Also, rain is capable of spreading plant diseases.

15. With references to organic farming in India, consider the following statements?

1. “The National Programme for Organic Production” (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of the Rural Development.

2. “The Agricultural and Processed and Products Export Development Authority” (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.

3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only

2. 2 and 3 only

3. 3 only

4. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

First statement is incorrect because National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the directions of Ministry of Commerce & Industry. Second statement is correct. APEDA functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP. Third statement is correct. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state.

16. With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to:

a. Buddhism

b. Jainism

c. Vaishnavism

d. Shaivism

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Sthānakavāsī is a sect of Śvētāmbara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer. The saints of this sect wear white clothes and cover their mouths with a square.

17. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.

2. Red Sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza in Lucknow.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer- Only 1

Explanation

First statement is correct. Buland Darwaza was made by using red sandstone, stone carvings, and white marbles. Second statement is incorrect because instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used for the construction of Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza.

18. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about Diamonds and diamond mines in India?

a. Francois Bernier

b. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

c. Jean de Thevenot

d. Abbe Barthelemy Carre

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveller. He is best known for his 1666 discovery/purchase of the 116-carat Tavernier Blue diamond that he subsequently sold to Louis XIV of France in 1668. He visited to India as far as Agra, and from there to the Kingdom of Golconda. He visited the court of the Great Mogul—Emperor Shah Jahan—and made his first trip to the diamond mines.

19. With reference to the Indian History, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

a. Avalokiteshvara

b. Lokesvara

c. Maitreya

d. Padmapani

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma.

20. Which of the following statements do not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

a. To maintain a large standing army at others expense

b. To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger

c. To secure a fixed income for the company

d. To establish British paramountcy over the Indian states

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

The doctrine of subsidiary alliance was introduced in India by the Lord Wellesley, British Governor-General in India from 1798 to 1805. The main principles of a subsidiary alliance were:

• The ruler entering into the alliance with British had to accept British forces within his territory and also agreed to pay for their maintenance.

• He would accept a British Resident in his state.

• He would not enter into any further alliance with any other power, nor would he declare war against any power without the permission of the British.

• He would not employ any Europeans other than the British

• In case of a conflict with any other state, he would agree the resolution decided upon by the British.

• The ruler would acknowledge the East India Company as the paramount power in India.

21. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813

2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823

3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct option from codes given below:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

The Charter Act of 1813 permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach their religion. The act also allocated Rs 100,000 to promote education in Indian masses. Although this act was the first act through which the education system was formally laid down in India, yet it had created a controversy between the Anglicist and classicist on the medium of instruction. The three opinions regarding the medium of instruction were- the first opinion was that the western sciences and knowledge should be promoted through the classical language as a medium of instruction, namely Sanskrit and Arabic; the second school of thought was favoured to the modern Indian language; and lastly the third school of thought held that education should be given through the medium of English.

In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education. Lord Macaulay was the head of the committee and he stressed the implementation of the English language as a medium of instruction.

22. Which of the following is an Artificial Lake?

a. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

b. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

c. Nainital (Uttarakhand)

d. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

Kodaikanal refers to a dense forest in Tamil language. Kodaikanal Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu. It was created in 1863.

23. With the reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. It is flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and Digital Literacy.

3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

First statement is incorrect because Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is a flagship scheme under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and not under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Second Statement is correct. The programme aims to impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and Digital Literacy. Third statement is correct. The programme aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

24. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?

a. All India Home Rule League

b. Hindu Mahasabha

c. South Indian Liberal Federation

d. The Servants of India Society

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

Gandhi secured the presidency of the Home Rule League in Bombay in October 1920. There he changed the name of All India Home Rule League to Swarajya Sabha.

25. Which among the following events happened earliest?

a. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj

b. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.

c. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.

d. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Arya samaj was founded by the Sannyasi (ascetic) Dayananda Saraswati on 7 April 1875. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote the play Nildarpan in the year 1860. Anandmath is a Bengali novel, written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and published in 1882. Satyendranath Tagore was selected for the Indian Civil Service in June, 1863.

26. Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1) Decreased salinity in the water.

2) Pollution of groundwater

3) Lowering of the water label.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- 2 & 3

Explanation

First is incorrect because heavy sand mining in riverbeds increases the salinity in the water rather than decreasing it. Second is correct because heavy sand mining increases the pollution of groundwater. Third is correct because heavy sand mining lowers the water table.

27. With reference to agriculture soils consider the following statements:

1. A high content of organic matter drastically reduces its water boiling capacity.

2. Soil does not play role in the sulphur cycle.

3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the Salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

First statement is incorrect because high amount of Organic Matter in the soil improves the soil water holding capacity. Second statement is incorrect because

Sulfur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulphur cycle describes the movement of sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things.

28. The Partnership for Action Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

a. The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

b. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio-de Janeiro.

c. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris

d. The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) seeks to put sustainability at the heart of economic policymaking. It is a direct response to the Rio+20 Declaration.

29. “3D Printing” has applications in which of the following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items

2. Manufacture of bionic cars

3. Automotive industry

4. Reconstructive surgeries

5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 3 and 4 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

3D printing has many applications ranging from manufacturing, medicine, architecture, and custom art and design. It includes Preparation of confectionery

items; manufacture of bionic cars; automotive industry; reconstructive surgeries; data processing technologies.

30. Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory

2. Barren Island lies about 140 kms cast of Great Nicobar.

3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statement given below is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 and 3

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in Indian Territory. Second statement is incorrect because Barren Island volcano is located 140-km north-east of the island's capital, Port Blair. Third statement is incorrect. Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and since then it has shown intermittent activity (has not remained inactive).

31. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna; stayed in America for sometime; and was elected to the Central Assembly. He was:

a. Aurobindo Ghosh

b. Bipin Chandra Pal

c. Lala Lajpat Rai

d. Motilal Nehru

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Lala Lajpat Rai was an Indian freedom fighter. He played a pivotal role in the Indian Independence movement. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna; stayed in America for sometime; and was elected to the Central Assembly.

32. Consider the following Statements:

1) Aadhar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

2) Once issued, Aadhar card cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 Only

2 Only

Both 1 & 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

First statement is incorrect because AADHAR card is a proof of identity and not a proof of citizenship and not of domicile. Second statement is also incorrect because the Aadhaar Act regulations, which are currently in Parliament, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database.

33. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

1. Aral Sea

2. Black Sea

3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3

c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

The Aral Sea is situated in Central Asia, between the Southern part of Kazakhstan and Northern Uzbekistan. It was the world’s fourth largest saline lake, till the 3rd quarter of the 20th century. It contained nearly 10grams of salt per litre. The two rivers called Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, fed water to the lake. However, since the Soviet government decided to enhance its irrigation projects in the 1960s, the condition of the lake has downgraded. It has shrinked to very large extent. Similarly, Lake Baikal in Siberia holds one fifth of the world's unfrozen fresh water. It has also been in news for shrinking activity.

34. “Rule of the law Index” is released by which of the following?

a. Amnesty International

b. International Court of Justice

c. The Office of UN Commissioner of Human Rights

d. World Justice Project

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

Rule of the law Index is released by World Justice Project.

35. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

a. Indian Bank’s Association

b. National Securities Depository Ltd

c. National Payments Corporation of India

d. Reserve Bank of India

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

National Payments Corporation of India is the umbrella organisation for all retail payment systems in India. National Financial Switch (NFS) was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking. It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

36. Consider the following statements:

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that the banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that bank incur if the account holder fail to repay any dues.

2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the following Statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is an international standard that measures a bank's risk of insolvency from excessive losses. It has to be maintained as per Basel norms internationally. Second statement is incorrect because the National regulators track a bank's CAR to ensure that it can absorb a reasonable amount of loss and complies with statutory Capital requirements. In India, it is decided by RBI for banks.

37. The identity platform ‘Aadhar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.

2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 Only

2 Only

Both 1 & 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- Both 1 & 2

Explanation

First statement is correct. Application Programming Interface allows easy communication between two software applications. This feature in Aadhaar allows it to integrate into any electronic device for communication purpose. Second statement is also correct. The API feature provides for several security features, especially those related to identification. The modes of authentication include: Demographic Authentication, one-time pin based authentication, Biometric based authentication, Multi-factor authentication. The biometric based authentification allows the existing Aadhaar system to identify using Iris.

38. Very recently, in which of the following countries having lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ ethnic conflicts?

a. Angola and Zambia

b. Morocco and Tunisia

c. Venezuela and Colombia

d. Yemen and South Sudan

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

The ongoing war between Shia and Sunni in Yemen has displaced millions of people in past few years. Sunni in Yemen are supported by Saudi Arab. Recently, Saudi Arab blocked food supplies to Yemen by blocking access to commercial ships, due to which a situation of severe famine occurred in Yemen. South Sudan is located in north-eastern Africa. It has been continuously gripped under civil war from past few years. The ongoing civil war has created a situation of famine in the country.

39. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced

2. Establishment of universities was recommended.

3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3.

Correct Answer- 1 & 2 Only

Explanation

The charter of British company was revised after every 20 years. In 1853 charter, along with other matters, a committee under the presidentship of Charles wood was constituted. The committee laid special focus on education in India. The main recommendations which Wood’s Despatch made were related to the creation of Director of Public Instruction, Improvement of Grant-in-Aid, building of universities, and expansion of primary education. So, first and second statements are correct. Third statement is incorrect. As per wood’s recommendation, English language should be used as medium of instruction where there is a demand for it. But it also recommended careful study of vernacular languages.

40. With the reference to Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules , sub-rules, bylaws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

a. Committee on Government Assurances

b. Committee on Subordinate Legislation

c. Rules Committee

d. Business Advisory Committee

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Subordinate legislation is the legislation made by an authority subordinate to the legislature. It includes the enactments for the powers for making rules, regulations, bye-laws or other statutory instruments which are exercised by the specified subordinate authorities. Such legislation is to be made within the framework of the powers so delegated by the legislature and is, therefore, known as delegated or subordinate legislation.

41. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 3 only

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Recently, the parliament passed the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Bill, 2017. As per the bill, the teachers so far appointed till 2015 under the act, are now required to acquire the minimum qualifications as prescribed in the act by 2019. The National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE) has prepared the National Curriculum Framework of Teacher Education, which was circulated in March 2009. This has been framed in accordance with the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 which necessitated an altered framework on Teacher Education. So, the first statement is incorrect. Second statement is correct. RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. Third statement is incorrect because in India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are not directly under the State Governments but are run by private sector.

42. Consider the following pairs:

Tradition State

1. Chapchar Kut Festival - Mizoram

2. Khongjom Parba ballad - Manipur

3. Thang-Ta Dance - Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2

c. 1 and 2

d. 2 and 3

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

The Chapchar Kut is a festival celebrated in Mizoram. It is celebrated during March after completion of their most arduous task of Jhum operation. Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum). THANG TA is popular term for the ancient Manipuri Martial Art known as HUYEN LALLONG.

43. Consider the following statements:

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.

2. The Food Safety and Standard Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- 1 Only

Explanation

In 1954, the Indian government enacted the food law known as Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. In the year 2006, the Food Safety and Standard Act was passed by Parliament which ultimately came into force in the year 2010. This Act repealed various laws including the Act of 1954. So, the first statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect because FSSAI has been established under the 'Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and is an independent body under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (not under the Directorate General of Health Services).

44. The term “ two state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of:

a. China

b. Israel

c. Iraq

d. Yemen

Correct Answer: B Israel

45. With reference to the provisions made under the national Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.

2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.

3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘ takehome ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 3 only

Correct Answer: B 2 Only

46. Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.

2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.

3. Treasury bills offers are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3.

Correct Answer: C (2 and 3)

47. Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth’s magnetic fields has reserved every few hundred thousand years.

2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.

3. When living organism originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. Only 1.

b. Only 2 and 3

c. Only 1 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

First statement is correct. It has been observed that once every few hundred thousand years the magnetic poles flip so that a compass would point south instead of north. The changes in magnetic field strength are part of this normal flipping cycle. Earth's magnetic field protects the planet from huge blasts of deadly solar radiation. Second statement is incorrect. The current composition of earth’s atmosphere is made up of a lot of nitrogen (78 percent), a bit of oxygen (21 percent), a splash of argon (0.93 percent), a small amount of carbon dioxide (0.038 percent) and trace amounts of other gases. But it has not remained same in the past as it is today. When Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, it had almost no atmosphere. As Earth cooled, an atmosphere formed mainly from gases spewed from volcanoes. Third statement is correct. When living organism originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

48. The terms “WannaCry, Petya and Eternal Blue” sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to:

a. Exoplanets

b. Cryptocurrency

c. Cyber attacks

d. Mini Satellites

Correct Answer- C

Explanation WannaCry is a ransomware worm that spread rapidly through across a number of computer networks in May of 2017. Petya is a family of encrypting ransomware that was first discovered in 2016. Eternal Blue is yet another ransomware that exploit of Microsoft Windows and attacks SMB file-sharing services.

49. With references to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices.

2. Adopting minimum tillage.

3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops.

4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface.

5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Conservation Agriculture observes three main principles: Minimal soil disturbance; Permanent soil cover; and rotation of crops. It does not advocate avoiding monoculture practice and cultivation of plantation crops.

50. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many part of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

(b) Fears of possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.

(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

(d) Mankind’s overexploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollutions and world climate change.

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

The Holocene extinction is also known as the "sixth extinction", due to its possibly being the sixth mass extinct event. As per survey, almost billions of populations of animals have been lost in recent decades which show that a sixth mass extinction in Earth’s history is under way. Fourth option in the above given question, is best suited to the definition.

51. With reference Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. Km beyond its order.

3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. None

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct. Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) is a constellation of seven satellites, three satellites of which are placed in geostationary and four in geosynchronous orbits. Second statement is incorrect because IRNSS covers entire India and about 1550 sq. Km beyond its order (not 5500 sq km). Third statement is incorrect because India already has its satellite navigation system NavIC that consists of nine satellites- seven in orbit and two as substitutes, but the system does not has full global coverage.

52. Consider the following phenomenon:

1. Light is affected by gravity.

2. The universe is constantly expanding.

3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Einstein published his theory of general relativity in 1915. According to Einstein's General Relativity Theory, light will be affected in the same way matter is affected by gravity. So, the first statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect because Einstein in his theory of general relativity predicted the universe, a model of a homogenous & static subject. However, in 1931, when the American astronomer Edwin Hubble showed Einstein his observations of redshift in the light emitted by far away nebulae – today known as galaxies, Einstein admitted that universe is not static but is expanding. Third statement is correct. His theory says that matter warps its surrounding space-time.

53. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.

2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.

3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Third statement is incorrect because GM mustard has not been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University but by the Delhi University’s Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants. Second statement is correct because unlike other plants like rice and maize, mustard is self-pollinating plant, and therefore to create hybrid mustard it requires to be genetically engineered with genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization. About First statement: The hybridisation in GM Mustard is achieved by means of the two genes barnase and barstar, derived from a soil bacterium called Bacillus amyloliquefaciens. This bacterium has the potential to suppress several plant pathogenic bacteria and fungi and therefore control damage to plants and is resistant to wide variety of pests. (First statement should be correct). However, going as per options given, the answer is Only 2.

Source

Source

54. Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes Context/Topic seen in news

1. Belle II - Artificial Intelligence experiment

2) Blockchain - Digital/ Technology Cryptocurrency

3) CRISPR - Cas9 - Particle Physics

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

First pair is incorrect because Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons. Second pair is correct because Blockchain technology is related to Digital/ Technology Cryptocurrency. Third pair is incorrect because CRISPR-Cas9 technology is related to DNA Sequences.

55. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

a. Increased Plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

b. Increased temperature of the earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

c. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

d. Adaptation of living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

The CO2 fertilization effect or carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants which in turn leads to increase in plant growth.

56. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places and order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off

automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

a. Border Gateway Protocol

b. Internet of Things

c. Internet Protocol

d. Visual Private Network

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

The Internet of Things (IoT) is the network of physical devices, vehicles, home appliances and other items embedded with electronics, software, sensors, actuators, and connectivity which enable these things to connect and exchange data, creating opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world. The paragraph given in the question best describes Internet of Things.

57. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

1. India is largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units

2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

Silicon wafers fabrication (fab) was allowed in the country in 2013. Since then though the government and the concerned ministry are striving hard to increase the production of the silicon wafer manufacturing in the country under the Make in India programme but still the production is far less compared to other countries. So, the first statement is incorrect. Second statement is again incorrect because Solar Power tariffs are determined either through the regulations of Central Electricity Regulatory Commission/State Electricity Regulatory Commission or through competitive bidding.

58. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

a. Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

b. Sugar, salt, zinc and Lead

c. Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

d. Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium.

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

Bengal’s foreign trade consisted of textiles comprising manufactures from cotton, silk and mixed yams, her raw silk, her rice, sugar, clarified butter, oil, coarse cotton cloths and saltpetre.

Source

59. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

a. Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement

b. Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement

c. Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement

d. Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops.

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

The Champaran Satyagraha was the first intersection of peasant unrest and the national movement. In March 2017, the centenary of the Champaran Satyagraha was celebrated.

Source

60. Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?

a. B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C George

b. Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N Roy

c. C.P Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu

d. Ashok Mehta, T.S Ramanujan and G.G Mehta

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was founded in Howrah in West Bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. Its founders included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary.

61. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceeding shall be instituted against the Governor of a state in any court during his terms of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his terms of office.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Correct Answer- Both 1 & 2

Explanation

First statement is correct. As per Article 361 of the Indian Constitution, the President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties. Second statement is also correct. As per Indian constitution, Governor shall be entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as are specified in the Second Schedule, and the emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

62. The well known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the:

(a) Bundi School

(b) Jaipur School

© Kangra School

(d) Kishangarh School

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

Bani Thani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihal Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh.

63. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

(a) An Israeli Radar System

(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme

(c) An American anti-missile system

(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is a transportable system that intercepts ballistic missiles inside or outside the atmosphere. It is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles.

64. With reference to culture history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna

2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.

3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.

4. Annamacharya kirtnas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venketshwara.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer- 2 & 4 Only

Explanation

First statement is incorrect because most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Ram and not Krishna. Second statement is correct. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. Third statement is incorrect because while Annamacharya was a 15th century saint, Tyagaraja was the 18th century saint. They were not contemporaries. Fourth statement is correct because Annamācārya was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called Sankirtana in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu.

65. Which of the following are regarded as the main feature of the “Rule of Law”?

1. Limitations of powers.

2. Equality before law.

3. People’s responsibility to the Government.

4. Liberty and Civil Rights.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

As per the World Justice Project, the definition of the rule of law is comprised of the following four universal principles:

• The government as well as private actors are accountable under the law.

• The laws are clear, publicized, stable, and just; are applied evenly; and protect fundamental rights, including the security of persons and property and certain core human rights.

• The processes by which the laws are enacted, administered, and enforced are accessible, fair, and efficient.

• Justice is delivered timely by competent, ethical, and independent representatives and neutrals who are accessible and have adequate resources.

People’s responsibility to the Government is thus not a part of Rule of Law.

66. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases.

(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.

(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bill of exchange, etc.

(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country.

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. The national currency is legal tender in practically every country. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt.

67. If a commodity is provided free to the public by Government, then

(a) the opportunity cost is zero.

(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.

(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the taxpaying public.

(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Opportunity cost is a benefit, profit, or value of something that must be given up to acquire or achieve something else. If a commodity is provided free to the public by Government, then opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the taxpaying public. Neither the opportunity cause is zero in this case nor it is ignored in this case.

68. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.

(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

(c) Poverty and unemployment increases.

(d) Imports grow faster than exports.

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP does not connote a higher level of economic development, if poverty and unemployment increases.

69. Consider the following statements:

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital

2. Increasing the knowledge, skills level and capacities of the people of the country.

3. Accumulation of tangible wealth.

4. Accumulation of intangible wealth.

Select the correct option from code given below:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2.

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Human capital refers to stock of “skill and expertise” embodied in humans. Going by this definition first and fourth option can be eliminated. Also human capital includes the intangible assets such as the knowledge base of the employees and is often measured by the quality of the product.

70. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

(a) Weak administrative machinery.

(b) Illiteracy

(c) High population density

(d) High capital-output ratio

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

Capital formation is a term used to describe the net capital accumulation during an accounting period for a particular country, and the term refers to additions of capital stock, such as equipment, tools, transportation assets and electricity. However, despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to High capital-output ratio i.e higher investment made and lower return earned.

71. After the Santhal rising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial Government?

1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.

2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a Non Santhal.

Select the correct answer using a code given below:

Correct Answer- Both 1 & 2

Explanation

First statement is correct. After the Santhal Revolt (1855-56), the Santhal Pargana was created, carving out from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum. Second statement is also correct because after the Santhal Pargana was formed it became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non -Santhal.

72. Economically, one of the result of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the:

(a) Increase in the exports of Indian handicrafts.

(b) Growth in the number of Indian owned factories.

(c) Commercialization of Indian agriculture.

(d) Rapid increase in urban population.

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

First option is incorrect because the exports of Indian handicrafts decreased during the British Rule in the 19th century. Second option is incorrect because though the number of factories increased but they were not owned by Indians. Third option is correct because commercialization of Indian agriculture was the main feature during the 19th century. Fourth option is again incorrect.

73. If President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) The assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.

(d) The President can make laws relating to that state

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

As per the Constitution if the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, powers of the Legislature of that State during the period shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament and the President may exercise himself all or any other functions of the state or may entrust governor with the powers to manage the state machinery.

74. Consider the following pairs:

Craft Heritage of state

1. Puthukkuli Shawls - Tamilnadu

2. Sujni embroidery- Maharashtra

3. Uppada Jamdani Saris- Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2

3 only

2 and 3

Correct Answer- 1 Only

Explanation

First pair is correct because Puthukkuli Shawls are related to Tamil Nadu. Toda people are a Dravidian ethnic group who live in the Nilgiri Mountains of Tamil Nadu. They are mainly involved in making of the Puthukkuli shawls. Second pair is incorrect because Sujni embroidery is related to Bihar. Third pair is again incorrect because Uppada Jamdani Saris are related to Andhra Pradesh.

75. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

1. Mobile phone operations

2. Banking operations

3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

Global Positioning System has widespread applications. Some of them as listed below:

Location - determining a position

Navigation - getting from one location to another

Tracking - monitoring object or personal movement

Mapping - creating maps of the world

Timing - bringing precise timing to the world

These applications can be utilised in mobile phone operations, banking operations as well controlling and monitoring the power grids.

76. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to:

a. ILO

b. IMF

c. UNCTAD

d. WTO

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

The WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights ("TRIPS") defines "geographical indications" as indications that identify a good as "originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographic origin.

77. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non coal mines. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.

3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 3 only

Correct Answer- Only 3

Explanation

First statement is incorrect because there are several non coal mines that are auctioned by state governments. Second statement is also incorrect because Andhra Pradesh has gold mines. Third statement is correct because Bhilwara iron ore mines are located in Rajasthan.

78. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with the UPI- enabled bank account.

2. While a chip pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct because BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with the UPI- enabled bank account. Second statement is incorrect because while a chip pin debit card has two factors of authentication, BHIM app has three factors of authentication.

79. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi? a. Bengaluru

b. Hyderabad

c. Nagpur

d. Pune

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

The Latitude and Longitude of Delhi is 28.7041° N, 77.1025° E, whereas that of Bengaluru is 12.9716° N, 77.5946° E. Latitude and Longitude of Nagpur is 21.1458° N, 79.0882° E. Latitude longitude of Pune is 18.5204° N, 73.8567° E. Therefore, Bengaluru resembles nearest longitude to that of Delhi.

80. International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to:

a. Child Labour

b. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change

c. Regulation of food prices and food security

d. Gender parity of the workplace

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

ILO Conventions No. on 138 and 182 are two Core Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO). Conventions 138 regarding admission of age to employment and Convention 182 is regarding worst forms of Child Labour”.

81. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

a. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

b. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

c. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

d. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

Article 110 of the Constitution provides the definition of money bills.

It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:

1. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax

2. The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India

3. The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;

4. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;

5. Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure;

6. The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state.

Thus from the above definition, it is clear that option C is not a correct statement regarding Money Bill.

82. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

The formula for determining the number of votes held by an MLA is:

Total population of the state or Union Territory/

(Total number of elected members of the Legislative Assembly/1000)

Since the population and number of elected members of legislative assemblies will be different in case of different states, therefore, value of votes of MLAs will be different. Value of vote of a MP is calculated by the formula:

The sum of the vote value of elected members of all the legislative assemblies/ the sum of elected members of both the houses of the parliament

Thus, we see that value of votes will be same for all MPs.

83. In the Indian Context, what is the implication of ratifying the “Additional Protocol” with the “International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)”?

a. The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

b. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

c. The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

d. The country automatically becomes the member of NSG.

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

The Additional Protocol increases the IAEA’s ability to verify the peaceful use of all nuclear material in States with comprehensive safeguards agreements. Under the Additional Protocol, the IAEA is granted expanded rights of access to information and locations in the States. For States with a CSA, the Additional Protocol aims to fill the gaps in the information reported under a CSA. By enabling the IAEA to obtain a much fuller picture of such States’ nuclear programmes, plans, nuclear material holdings and trade, the Additional Protocol increases the IAEA’s ability to provide much greater assurance on the absence of undeclared nuclear material and activities in those States.

84. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the “free trade partners” of ASEAN?

a. 1, 2, 4 and 5

b. 3, 4, 5 and 6

c. 1, 3, 4 and 5

d. 2, 3, 4 and 6

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

The six “free trade partners” of ASEAN are – Australia, New Zealand, India, Korea, Japan, and China.

85. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015.

2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.

3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct option from code given below:

1 and 3 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) is an integrated approach to manage the landscapes- cropland, livestock, forests and fisheries--that address the interlinked challenges of food security and climate change. The term Climate-Smart Agriculture was first coined by FAO in 2010 as a means to attract climate finance to its agricultural programmes in Africa and East Asia. The World Bank Group (WBG) is currently scaling up climate-smart agriculture. So, the second statement is correct. First and Third statements are incorrect. Neither GACSA is an outcome of climate summit held in Paris, nor does India have an instrumental role in its creation.

86. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?

1. Formation of India’s own internet companies like China did.

2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their last data centres within our national geographical boundaries.

3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

The aim of Digital India initiative is to connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. So, third statement is correct. As a result of Digital India programme, there arises a need for more space on cloud for data storage and also an additional security features to prevent the vital information of users. This all has generated a need for the establishment of data centres in India and an option for India to come up with its own internet companies like China did. However, second and third statements are not an aim of digital India programme. So, First and Second statements are incorrect.

87. Consider the Following Pairs:

Towns sometimes seen in news: Country mentioned in the news

1. Aleppo - Syria

2. Kirkuk - Yemen

3. Mosul - Palestine

4. Mazar-i-Sharif - Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 4

c. 2 and 3

d. 3 and 4

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Aleppo is a city in Syria. It was frequently in news due to struggle in the city between Syrian government and ISIS. Kirkuk is a city in Iraq. It was frequently in news due to Kurdish Peshmerga fighters. Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq. It was also in news due to frequent conflicts between ethnic tribes in the region. Mazar-i-Sharif is located in Afghanistan.

88. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary power were given to the

a. Federal Legislature

b. Governor General

c. Provincial Legislature

d. Provincial Governors

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the Governor General.

Source

89. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct. Speaker vacates his office earlier in the following three cases:

1. if he ceases to be a member of the assembly;

2. if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and

3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly.

Second statement is incorrect because even if the Legislative assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his/her office immediately and holds the post till first meeting of the new assembly.

90. Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

a. If there are more laws, there is less Liberty.

b. If there are no laws there is no liberty.

c. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by people.

d. If laws are changed too often liberty is in danger

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

Source

91. Consider the following statements:

1) In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2) In the first Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the opposition “was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3) In the first Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum 75 members, its leaders cannot be recognised as the Leaders of the Opposition.

Which of the statement given below is/ are correct?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- B

Explanation First statement is incorrect because in the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was Congress party which won 364 seats out of 489 seats. Second statement is correct because India got its first Leader of the Opposition in 1969 in the Fourth Lok Sabha. Dr. Ram Subhag Singh was appointed LOP by the Speaker. Third statement is incorrect because it requires

a minimum of 10 % of total membership of the House for a party to be called leader of opposition and appoint an opposition leader.

92. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves

2. Tiny leaves

3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 2 and 3 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

The leaves and stems of many desert plants have a thick covering that is coated with a waxy substance, allowing them to seal in and protect what moisture they already have. Similarly, tiny leaves and thorns instead of leaves are special features of plants that inhibit in desert areas.

93. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Technical Households” consider the following statements:

1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.

2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percentages belongs to OBCs.

3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent agricultural household reported to have maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statement given below is/ are correct?

a. 2 and 3 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

First statement is correct because Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh have the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households as the NSSO 70th Round report. Second statement is incorrect because out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little less than 50 percentages belongs to OBCs. Third statement is correct. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent

agricultural household reported to have maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Source

94. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act and CPCB has been created by an executive order of the government.

2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reducing the burden of litigation in the High Courts whereas the CPCB promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells, aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- B

Explanation

First statement is incorrect because both NGT and CPCB have been established via different acts and not through executive orders. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body that was established in 2010 by the National Green Tribunal Act. Second statement is correct. While the NGT provides environmental justice and helps reducing the burden of litigation in the High Courts, the CPCB promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells, aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

95. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India

2. The validity of law placed in Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct. Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Second statement is incorrect because the Supreme Court in its judgement has said that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial scrutiny and that such laws do not enjoy a blanket protection.

Source

96. Which of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in the news?

a. the incentive by a Bank given to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods and services.

b. the amount paid by bank to their customers when they pay by debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods and services.

c. the charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit card.

d. the incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through PoS( point of sale) machines and debit cards.

Correct Answer- C

Explanation

The merchant discount rate is the rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit and credit card transactions.

Source

97. Which is /are the consequence/consequences of becoming a member of the “Nuclear supplier Group”?

1. It will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies.

2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty of non-proliferation of Nuclear weapons (NPT)”

Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- 1 Only

Explanation

Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons. Once a country becomes its member it will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies.

So, the first statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect because there is no such provision of a member of NSG to automatically become member of the Treaty of non-proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).

Source

98. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non resident entities, which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. It is introduced as a part of Income Tax Act.

2. Non Resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement” Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- D

Explanation

Government has introduced a new means called equalization tax to indirectly tax companies such as Google and Facebook, for taxation of cross-border digital transactions and potentially drive up costs for advertisers. Also there is no provision under which Non Resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance commission”. So, first and second statements are incorrect.

Source

99. Consider the following Statements:

1. The Fiscal responsibility and the budget Management Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) Government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central government and 20% for the State Government.

2. The Central government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the State Governments.

3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for the state to take Central government's consent for raising any loans if the former owes any liabilities to the latter.

Which of the given statement is/ are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct. Fiscal responsibility and the budget Management Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) Government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central government and 20% for the State Government. Second statement is incorrect because the central government domestic liabilities are not 21% of GDP but more than 40 percent. Third statement is incorrect because it is not mandatory for the state to take Central government's consent for raising any loans if the former owes any liabilities to the latter.

Source

100. Consider the following statements:

1. The quality of imported edible oil is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.

2. The Government does not impose any custom duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer- A

Explanation

First statement is correct. India is currently producing 7 to 8.5 million metric tonnes of edible oil annually from 28 million hectares of land. But the country is still heavily dependent on imports of the oil, nearly 15 million metric tonnes of edible oil imported in 2017 which is more than the domestic production. Second statement is incorrect because government imposes custom duty on imported edible oils; in fact, it has recently increased the duty on imported edible oils in the country.

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